Re: unexpected result
On 2006-03-14, Walter Roberson <roberson@ibd.n rc-cnrc.gc.ca> wrote:[color=blue]
> In article <slrne1e0or.jqh .random832@rand om.yi.org>,
> Jordan Abel <random832@gmai l.com> wrote:
>[color=green]
>>I've heard that in most sane parts of the world, if something can be
>>shown to be sufficiently unlikely to be taken seriously by any third
>>party as to not do actual damage to the "victim"'s reputation, that is a
>>sufficient defense in a libel case. Unfortunately, for these purposes
>>I'm told that the UK's legal system is not as 'sane' as those in most
>>other parts of the world.[/color]
>[color=green]
>>So, as long as he never actually visits there, he should be fine.[/color]
>
> [OT]
>
> Disclaimer: IANAL
>
> UK law can be used to sue for "publicatio n" in the UK,
> even if neither party is a UK resident. A previous case has -already-
> established that posting to a newsgroup that is available in the UK
> qualifies as "publishing " in the UK, and the third-party libel
> lawsuit scenario has -already- happened and was successful.
>
> If a libel lawsuit is filed against someone in the UK and that
> person choses not to defend against it (e.g. because they don't
> want to bother with the expense of travelling and staying in the UK),
> then the most likely result (for a properly-filed suit) would be
> a default judgement. If the person then choose not to travel to the UK
> in order to avoid collection upon the judgement, then the person
> would also have to avoid doing business in the UK (even as simple
> as ordering a CD from a UK distributor), as any funds or property
> of theirs that enters UK jurisdiction would be subject to seizure.
> {I don't have any information about other possible consequences.}[/color]
Say both parties are citizens of the US. Could the one who sued for
libel then, subsequently, be sued in the US for malicious prosecution,
barratry, or something like that? [they sued in UK jurisdiction,
presumably, because they knew that what was done was not in fact libel,
and were taking advantage of the lax standards of proof in the UK, or
even of the likelihood of a default judgement.]
On 2006-03-14, Walter Roberson <roberson@ibd.n rc-cnrc.gc.ca> wrote:[color=blue]
> In article <slrne1e0or.jqh .random832@rand om.yi.org>,
> Jordan Abel <random832@gmai l.com> wrote:
>[color=green]
>>I've heard that in most sane parts of the world, if something can be
>>shown to be sufficiently unlikely to be taken seriously by any third
>>party as to not do actual damage to the "victim"'s reputation, that is a
>>sufficient defense in a libel case. Unfortunately, for these purposes
>>I'm told that the UK's legal system is not as 'sane' as those in most
>>other parts of the world.[/color]
>[color=green]
>>So, as long as he never actually visits there, he should be fine.[/color]
>
> [OT]
>
> Disclaimer: IANAL
>
> UK law can be used to sue for "publicatio n" in the UK,
> even if neither party is a UK resident. A previous case has -already-
> established that posting to a newsgroup that is available in the UK
> qualifies as "publishing " in the UK, and the third-party libel
> lawsuit scenario has -already- happened and was successful.
>
> If a libel lawsuit is filed against someone in the UK and that
> person choses not to defend against it (e.g. because they don't
> want to bother with the expense of travelling and staying in the UK),
> then the most likely result (for a properly-filed suit) would be
> a default judgement. If the person then choose not to travel to the UK
> in order to avoid collection upon the judgement, then the person
> would also have to avoid doing business in the UK (even as simple
> as ordering a CD from a UK distributor), as any funds or property
> of theirs that enters UK jurisdiction would be subject to seizure.
> {I don't have any information about other possible consequences.}[/color]
Say both parties are citizens of the US. Could the one who sued for
libel then, subsequently, be sued in the US for malicious prosecution,
barratry, or something like that? [they sued in UK jurisdiction,
presumably, because they knew that what was done was not in fact libel,
and were taking advantage of the lax standards of proof in the UK, or
even of the likelihood of a default judgement.]
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